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"Bullard, Claude L (Len)" scripsit:
> Just curious. Did a technical innovation
> (eg, automated typesetting, typewriter keyboards)
> drive the convergence and subsequent stabilization?
Not that I can think of. The i/j split happened after Gutenberg and
before the typewriter. But it was part of the general stabilization of
spelling in the European languages about that time, which was definitely
driven by printers/booksellers/publishers.
John Cowan <firstname.lastname@example.org> http://www.reutershealth.com
I amar prestar aen, han mathon ne nen, http://www.ccil.org/~cowan
han mathon ne chae, a han noston ne 'wilith. --Galadriel, _LOTR:FOTR_