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   RE: [xml-dev] Typing and paranoia

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It has a DTD because schemas are written using XML 1.0 syntax, so what? The input to a schema for validation and its output are not XML 1.0 documents but XML Infosets. I consider this far more relevant than whether the syntax for authoring schemas uses XML 1.0 syntax, a RELAX NG style compact syntax or EBNF. 

	-----Original Message----- 
	From: Sam Hunting [mailto:shunting@etopicality.com] 
	Sent: Fri 12/6/2002 6:50 AM 
	To: Dare Obasanjo 
	Cc: Bullard, Claude L (Len); XML Dev 
	Subject: RE: [xml-dev] Typing and paranoia
	
	


	Yes, but Len asked "Why does it a DTD?" So why does it?
	
	On Fri, 6 Dec 2002, Dare Obasanjo wrote:
	
	> Oh, you were saying that XML Schema uses XML 1.0 syntax? That doesn't seem like a big deal given the hundreds of markup dialects built with XML. I meant that W3C XML Schema describes how to constrain an XML Infoset not a document written using the XML 1.0 syntax.
	>
	>       -----Original Message-----
	>       From: Bullard, Claude L (Len) [mailto:clbullar@ingr.com]
	>       Sent: Fri 12/6/2002 6:37 AM
	>       To: Dare Obasanjo
	>       Cc: XML Dev
	>       Subject: RE: [xml-dev] Typing and paranoia
	>      
	>      
	>
	>       Then why does it have a DTD?
	>      
	>       len
	>      
	>       -----Original Message-----
	>       From: Dare Obasanjo [mailto:dareo@microsoft.com]
	>      
	>       I'm not getting into this debate but just want to point out that W3C XML
	>       Schema is defined in terms of the Infoset not the XML 1.0 syntax.
	>      
	>
	
	Sam Hunting
	eTopicality, Inc.
	
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