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> My question is: assuming I've created a schema for my old set
> of documents,
> if I were to create a transformation T1 that, given the old schema,
> generates the new schema, could I machine-generate from that
> transformation
> T1 another transformation T2 that could be applied to the documents
> themselves?
It's easy to demonstrate that this is impossible in general. Given a schema
for
<p>Some <i>text</i> in italics</p>
and another schema for
<para>Some <italic>text</italic> in italics</para>
It's clearly impossible to deduce the transformation by looking at the
schemas alone.
There are plenty of tools out there (generally called "mappers") that allow
you to design a transformation starting from two schemas, by showing the
relationships between the elements in each. They only work where the two
schemas are quite similar, but that's probably true in your case.
Michael Kay
http://www.saxonica.com/
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