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Hi,
I have a short question I have not been able to answer reading the XSD specs.
Suppose I have a schema A defining an element Foo and a schema B that includes A. Is it ok for schema B to also define Foo (in a different way)? Does such a redefinition take precedence over A's definition of Foo? Is there a constraint that every valid Foo(B) must also be a valid Foo(A)?
[I am NOT intending to use/cannot use the <redefine> element, BTW]
Thanks in advance for any help.
Jan
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