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- From: Ramesh Gupta <ramesh@eNode.com>
- To: email@example.com
- Date: Wed, 11 Oct 2000 08:15:33 -0700
If both <B> and <C> are equivalent to <A> (for substitution), then are they
also equivalent to each other? In other words, can <B> be substituted
anywhere <C> may occur (without using xsi:type)?
Thanks for clarification.