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- From: "Clark C. Evans" <cce@clarkevans.com>
- To: ramesh@eNode.com
- Date: Wed, 11 Oct 2000 17:45:28 -0400 (EDT)
> If both <B> and <C> are equivalent to <A> (for substitution),
> then are they also equivalent to each other? In other words,
> can <B> be substituted anywhere <C> may occur (without using xsi:type)?
Transitivity (of substitution): If A is substitutable for
B and if B is substitutable for C, then A is substitutable
for C. In other words, A > B and B > C implies A > C.
In your example, you have B > A and C > A.
This does not imply that B > C or that C > B.
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