[
Lists Home 
Date Index 
Thread Index
]
 From: Ramesh Gupta <ramesh@eNode.com>
 Date: Wed, 11 Oct 2000 14:40:47 0700
on 10/11/00 2:45 PM, Clark C. Evans at cce@clarkevans.com wrote:
>> If both <B> and <C> are equivalent to <A> (for substitution),
>> then are they also equivalent to each other? In other words,
>> can <B> be substituted anywhere <C> may occur (without using xsi:type)?
>
> Transitivity (of substitution): If A is substitutable for
> B and if B is substitutable for C, then A is substitutable
> for C. In other words, A > B and B > C implies A > C.
>
> In your example, you have B > A and C > A.
> This does not imply that B > C or that C > B.
>
My question was that if B <=> A and C <=> A, then is B <=> C (where <=>
means "equivalent")?
In reality, a substitution group does not define bidirectional equivalence.
So the question becomes "If B => A and C => A, then does B => C?" Of course,
the answer is no, not automatically.
I guess, my question should have been "Is there a way to declare an element
equivalent to more than one other element?" Thanks to Henry for a short and
succinct answer.
Ramesh
