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   Re: [xml-dev] Why is xml:base a URI *reference*?

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On Thu, 2004-01-08 at 11:06, Henry S. Thompson wrote:
> Elliotte Rusty Harold <elharo@metalab.unc.edu> writes:
> 
> > At 8:09 PM -0500 1/7/04, Jonathan Borden wrote:
> >> Does anyone here know the reasoning behind this? In specific, why
> >> does xml:base allow URI references (i.e. with fragment identifiers)
> >> rather than simply using URIs (URIrefs sans fragment identifiers)?
> >
> > I seem to recall that the thinking was that relative URIs are only URI
> > references, not true URIs; and URI references were used to enable
> > this, not to enable fragment identifiers.
> 
> That's my belief also.  IIRC, the RFC defines URI to be what you and I
> would call an absolute URI.

That makes sense, but how does that relate to the namespaces' URI
references, then?

Is that an indication that the WG did really want to allow relative URIs
or does "URI reference" have a different meaning in the namespaces
specification?

I hope I am not restarting the most terrible XML-DEV permathread, but I
hadn't understood clearly this difference between URI and URI references
when this has been discussed.

Also, this doesn't seem to be coherent either with WXS' definition of
anyURI
http://www.w3.org/TR/2001/REC-xmlschema-2-20010502/#anyURI that says:

"anyURI represents a Uniform Resource Identifier Reference (URI). An
anyURI value can be absolute or relative..."

If the W3C has another definition of what are URIs and URI references
than the IETF which seems to be the case, shouldn't that definition be
used coherently in all the W3C specifications (instead of having some of
them use the W3C definitions and some other use the IETF one)? 

Eric
> 
> ht
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