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I believe that the spec is unclear in this area; others seem to believe it
is clear. However, the consensus is that B does not have to include A. The
explanation for this is that a schema that contains references to undefined
components is not actually "invalid": it just means that components
containing unresolved references can't be used for validation.
> -----Original Message-----
> From: Takuki Kamiya [mailto:firstname.lastname@example.org]
> Sent: 06 March 2005 06:33
> To: email@example.com; firstname.lastname@example.org
> Subject: [xml-dev] clarification needed for include
> Section 4.2.1 in XML Schema Part 1 2nd Ed mentions
> in the "schema representation constraint" section that:
> "1.2 It resolves to a <schema> element information item
> in a well-formed information set, which in turn corresponds
> to a valid schema."
> (In http://www.w3.org/TR/xmlschema-1/#layer2)
> It basically asserts that the schema document being included
> has to be "valid". I am not so sure what this "valid" means.
> Is it "valid" in terms of what? I guess it is probably meant to be
> "valid" against the whole XML Schema specification.
> If it is the case there's another question.
> Say for example, schema A includes schema B, and B uses
> a component (eg. type definition) that is defined in schema A.
> My question is: does schema B have to also "include" schema A?
> If B does not include A, then schema B is now "invalid" since it does
> not validate as a stand-alone schema document because some of
> the references (eg. type references) do not (cannot) resolve without
> being aware of components in schema A.
> I know I can experiment with the implementations, which I did
> ours and got different results. Only one implementation required
> schema B to include A, but others did not care about it.
> Any comments are appreciated.
> Thank you,
> -Takuki Kamiya (Fujitsu Software Corporation)
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