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Re: [xml-dev] Re: Does the XML syntax have an underlying data model?
- From: Lauren Wood <lauren@textuality.com>
- To: "xml-dev@lists.xml.org" <xml-dev@lists.xml.org>
- Date: Sun, 17 Apr 2016 11:28:57 -0700
Some people on the XML WG did not want to define a data model. It
wasn't only a matter of not having the time. It's the 'bits on the
wire' philosophy
(https://www.tbray.org/ongoing/When/199x/1999/08/18/BitsOnTheWire is
an example).
Lauren
On Sun, Apr 17, 2016 at 10:58 AM, Costello, Roger L. <costello@mitre.org> wrote:
> Henry Thompson wrote:
>
> My personal take on where this leads
> is recorded here, vintage 2001:
>
> http://www.ltg.ed.ac.uk/~ht/XML_MetaArchitecture.html
>
> Thanks Henry!
>
> Your notes are a great historical memory. Here is an extract from your notes; it is spot-on to this discussion:
>
> In the interests of time, XML 1.0 did not
> define its own data model.
> - So XPath had to define it.
> - And XLink had to define it.
> - And the DOM had to define it.
> - Finally, later than we'd have liked,
> we're about to get:
> The XML Information Set or Infoset.
>
>
>
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